A. Primaquine is liable to cause hemolysis in patients with G6PD deficiency

B. Primaquine eliminates P. vivax and P. ovale

C. Halofantrine prolongs QT interval and causes dysarrythmia

B. Syphilis

C. Bacterial meningitis

D. Anthrax

B. Worsening of preexisting asthma

C. Hypoglycemic episodes in diabetes

D. Ischemic cardiac episode on abrupt discontinuation

A. Enthionamide

B. Pyrazinamide

C. Ethambutol

A. Focus of action

B. Mode of biotransformation

D. None of the above

A. Efavirenz

B. Ritonavir

C. Enfuvirtide

A. Ceftazidine

B. Ticarcillin

D. Amoxycillin

A. Antibiotic

B. Anti-arthritic drug

C. Anti-inflaqmmatory drug

A. Is active against gram-positive aerobes

B. Is mainly concentrated in saliva

C. Has no side-effects

B. Pirenzipine, propanolol and propantheline

C. choline, adrenaline and amphetamine

D. Glycinium neostigamine and physostigamine

B. Zidovodine

C. Amontidine

D. Nystatin

A. Cost of therapy

B. Dosage of drugs

D. Side effects of drugs

B. It acts on pancreas to stimulate release of insulin

C. It is taken orally

D. It causes alcohol intolerance

A. Tetracycline

C. Penicillin

D. Bacitracin

B. Ara-amp

C. Idoxyuridine

D. Vidarabine

A. Facial nerve

B. Trigeminal nerve

C. Optic nerve

B. Angioneurotic oedema

C. Photosensitivity

D. Candidiasis

A. Mezlocillin

B. Azlocillin

D. Piperacillin

A. Cefepime

C. Cefoperazone

D. Cefotaxime

A. pencillin

C. Cephalosporins

D. Erythromycin

A. Dipheny 1 hydantoin

B. Penicillinium

C. Amino epsilon caproic acid

A. 10% to 20%

B. 30% to 40%

D. 20% to 30

A. Cephalexin

B. Penicillin

C. Ampicillin

A. Reduced because of increased protein binding

B. Reduced because of enhanced hepatic drug metabolism

C. Increase because of decrease renal excretion of the anticoagulant

A. Suphacetamide

B. Silversulphadiazine

C. Mafenide

A. Cause decrease in cardiac output and relax bradycardia

C. None of the above

D. Cause decrease in B.P, due to its action on Alpha receptors only

A. Block the sympathetic flow at hypothalamus

C. Increases cAMP

D. Calcium channel blocker

A. All of these

B. Cidal in action

C. Static in action

A. Quinolone

B. Antidepressant

C. Broad spectrum antibiotic

B. Agranulocytosis

C. Aaemolysis

D. Aplastic anaemia

A. ferrous Sulphate

B. Iron Sorbitol Citrate Solution

D. ferrous Humourate

B. Bidoprolo

C. Amiodarnone

D. Amlodipine

A. Isoniazid

B. Ethambutol

D. Kanamycin

A. Dictoxacillin

B. Cephalexin

D. Cloxacillin

A. Amphotericin

B. Sulfonates

D. Griseofulvin

A. Short-acting narcotic

B. Non-depolarizing muscle relaxant

C. Intravenous anaesthetic agent

A. Factor VIII cryoprecipitate

B. Aminocarproic Acid

C. Tranexamic acid

A. Bupivacaine

B. Procaine

D. Lidocaine

A. Linezolid

B. Teichoplanin

D. Vancomycin

B. Isoniazid

C. Ripampicin

D. Pyrazinamide

A. Nalidixic acid

B. Furazolidone

D. Cotrimoxazole

A. Amoebiasis

B. Trichomonas infection

D. Ulcerative gingivitis

A. Antibacterial

B. Chemotherapic agent

D. Antiviral agent

A. Indicated in oral thrush

B. Can be safely given to immunocompromised patients

C. Exacerbate the inflammatory response

A. Mebendazole

B. Bephenium Naphthoate

C. Ciprofloxacin

A. Inactivate acetylcholine esterase enzyme

C. Destroys acetyl choline

D. Prevent release of acetyl choline

B. Inhibits Bacterial protein synthesis

C. Inhibits intake of folic acid

D. Inhibits bacterial cell wall synthesis

A. Cephalosporin

C. Aminoglycoside

D. Penicillin

A. Pirazinamide

B. Ethambutol

D. Rifampicin

A. Intestinal nematode infection

C. Scabies

D. Filariasis