airport engineering Mcqs
1. The length of clear zone for none instrument runway of a small aircraft is________________?
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A. 750 m

B. 600 m

C. 150 m

D. 300 m
2. Which of the following is an example of failure in flexible pavements ?
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A. Warping cracks

B. Shrinkage cracks

C. Alligator cracking

D. Mud pumping

3. An airport has 4 gates. If the weighted average gate occupancy time is 30 minutes and gate utilisation factor is 0.5, then the capacity of the gate will be___________________?
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A. 1 aircraft per hour

B. 2 aircrafts per hour

C. 4 aircrafts per hour

D. 16 aircrafts per hour

4. Which of the following is used for servicing and repairs of the aircraft ?
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A. Apron

B. Terminal building

C. Hanger

D. holding apron

5. The cruising speed of the aircraft is 500 kmph. If there is a head wind of 50 kmph, then the air speed and ground speed of the aircraft respectively will be_________________?
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A. 500 kmph and 500 kmph

B. 450 kmph and 500 kmph

C. 450 kmph and 450 kmph

D. 500 kmph and 450 kmph

6. Consider the following statements: Wind rose diagram is used for the purposes of_________________?
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A. estimating the runway capacity

B. geometric design of holding apron </strong>

C. runway orientation

D. ect the correct answer?

7. Assertion A: The width of a taxiway is smaller than the runway width. Reason R : The speed of the aircraft on a taxiway is greater than that on runway.?
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A. ect your answer based on coding system given below

8. In an airport, if 4 groups of 5 gates each located well-separated are considered for traffic and the future to present traffic ratio is 3, then the total requirement of future gates will be______________?
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A. 68

B. 44

C. 32

D. 36
9. If the monthly mean of average daily temperature for the hottest month of the year is 25 C and the monthly mean of the maximum daily temperature of the same month of the year is 46 C, the airport reference temperature is____________________?
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A. 48C

B. 25C

C. 35.5C

D. 32C

10. As per ICAO recommendation, the rate of change of longitudinal gradient per 30 m length of vertical curve for A and B type of airports is limited to a maximum of__________________?
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A. 0.40%

B. 0.1 %

C. 0.30%

D. 0.20%

11. As per UK design criteria, if LCN of aircraft is between 1.25 to 1.5 times the LCN of pavement, then the number of movements allowed are__________________?
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A. Zero

B. 3000

C. 300

D. Unrestricted

12. The length of runway under standard conditions is 2000 m. The elevation of airport site is 300 m. Its reference temperature is 33.05C. If the runway is to be constructed with an effective gradient of 0.25 percent, the corrected runway length will be________________?
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A. 2700 m

B. 2600 m

C. 2500 m

D. 2800 m

13. As per ICAO, the minimum basic runway length for A and E type of airport will be________________?
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A. 2100 m and 750 m

B. 1500 m and 600 m

C. 2100 m and 600 m

D. 1500 m and 750 m

14. The minimum width of clearway is_______________?
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A. 50 m

B. 150 m

C. 100 m

D. 250 m

15. Runway threshold is indicated by a series of parallel lines starting from a distance of_______________?
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A. 15m from runway end

B. 6 m from runway end

C. 10 m from runway end

D. 3 m from runway end

16. The total length of a runway is 1000 m. The elevation at distance 0,200 m, 400 m, 600 m, 800 m and 1000 m are 100.0 m, 99.2 m, 101.0 m, 101.8 m, 101.4 m and 101.0 m respectively. The effective gradient of runway will be______________?
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A. 0.26%

B. 0.43%

C. 0.65%

D. 0.10%

17. Castor angle is defined as the angle______________?
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A. between the true speed of the aircraft and the crosswind component

B. between the horizontal and the fuselage axis

C. formed by the longitudinal axis of the aircraft and the direction of movement of the nose gear

D. between the direction of wind and the longitudinal axis of the runway

18. Maximum gross take-off weight of an aircraft is__________________?
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A. equal to the empty operating weight plus the payload

B. less than the maximum structural landing weight

C. equal to the maximum structural landing weight

D. more than the maximum structural landing weight
19. In Intrumental landing system, the middle markers are located___________________?
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A. along the extended centre line of runway end

B. about 7 km. ahead of the runway threshold

C. at the runway threshold

D. about 1 km. ahead of the runway threshold
20. In approach areas of runways equipped with instrumental landing facilities any object within 4.5 km distance from runway end shall be considered as an obstruction if its height is more than______________?
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A. 51 m

B. 45 m

C. 30 m

D. 20 m

21. The capacity of parallel runway pattern depends upon______________?
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A. lateral spacing between two runways and weather conditions

B. weather conditions and navigational aids available

C. lateral spacing between two runways and navigational aids available

D. lateral spacing between two runways, weather conditions and navigational aids available
22. Assertion A : Airport capacity during IFR conditions is usually less than that during VFR conditions. Reason R: During clear weather condition (VFR), the aircrafts on final approach to runway can be spaced closer during poor visibility conditions?
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A. ect your answer based on the coding system given below?

23. As per International Civil Aviation Organization (ICAO) recommendation, minimum width of safety area for instrumental runway should be_________________?
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A. 450 m

B. 300 m

C. 150 m

D. 78 m

24. The engine failure case for determining the basic runway length may require________________?
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A. only stop way ,

B. either a clearway or a stopway

C. either a clearway or a stopway or both

D. only clearway

25. Which of the following factors are taken into account for estimating the runway length required for aircraft landing ?
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A. Effective runway gradient</strong>

B. Maximum landing weight

C. Airport elevation

D. ect the correct answer using the codes given below Codes?

E. Normal maximum temperature
26. The slope of the transitional surface for A, B and C type of runway shall be_______________?
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A. 1:7

B. 1:05

C. 1:12

D. 1:10

27. Assertion A : The ratio of arriving and departing aircrafts influences the airport capacity: Reason R :Landing operation is generally given priority over the taking off operation_________________?
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A. ect your answer based on the coding system given below?

28. Zero fuel weight of an aircraft is_________________?
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A. equal to sum of empty operating weight and the maximum pay load

B. less than empty operating weight

C. equal to maximum landing weight

D. equal to empty operating weight

29. Consider the following statements regarding iCAO recommendation for correction to basic runway length_________________?
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A. ect the correct statment

B. The basic runway length should be increased at the rate of 7 percent per 300 m rise in elevation above the mean sea level

C. The basic runway length after having been corrected for elevation should be further increased at the rate of 1 percent for every 1C rise in airport reference temperature above the standard atmospheric temperature at that elevation

D. The runway length after having been corrected for elevation and temperature should be further increased at the rate of 20% for every 1 percent of effective gradient</strong>

30. According to ICAO, all markings on the runways are___________________?
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A. Yellow

B. Black

C. White

D. Red

31. As per ICAO, for A, B, and C type of airports, maximum effective, transverse and longitudinal grades in percentage respectively are______________?
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A. 1.5, 1.5 and 2.0

B. 2.0, 2.0 and 2.0

C. 1.0, 1.5 and 2.0

D. 1.0, 1.5 and 1.5
32. Calm period is the percentage of time during which wind intensity is less than______________?
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A. 6.4 kmph

B. 9.6 kmph

C. 8.0 kmph

D. 4.8 kmph

33. For determining the basic runway.length, the landing case requires that aircraft should come to a stop within p % of the landing distance. The value of p is________________?
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A. 40%

B. 60%

C. 50%

D. 75%

34. The slope of the obstruction clearance line from the boundary of the heliport should be________________?
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A. 1:05

B. 1:40

C. 1:02

D. 1:8
35. The main disadvantage of angle nose out parking configuration of aircraft is that the_______________?
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A. all the above

B. overall apron area required is more

C. hot blast is directed towards the terminal building

D. aircraft rear loading door is far away from terminal building.

36. As per ICAO, for airports serving big aircrafts, the crosswind component should not exceed_________________?
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A. 45 kmph

B. 35 kmph

C. 15 kmph

D. 25 kmph

37. The runway length after correcting for elevation and temperature is 2845 m. If the effective gradient on runway is 0.5 percent then the revised runway length will be_________________?
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A. 3030 m

B. 2910 m

C. 3130 m

D. 2845 m

38. The centre to centre spacing of heliport lighting along the periphery of landing and take off area should be______________?
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A. 2.5 m

B. 10.0 m

C. 5.0 m

D. 7.5 m
39. The size of landing area for multiengined helicopters operating under 1FR conditions is______________?
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A. 22.5 m x 30 m

B. 30 m x 30 m

C. 22.5 m x 22.5 m

D. 60 mx 120 m
40. The width and interval of transverse centre line bars along the extended centre line of runway, in approach lighting system are_________________?
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A. 3 m and 30 m

B. 4.2 m and 30 m

C. 3 m and 45 m

D. 4.2 m and 50 m

41. For supersonic transport aircraft, the minimum turning radius of taxiway is________________?
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A. 180 m

B. 240 m

C. 60 m

D. 120 m