oral pathology and medicine Mcqs
301. Which of the following conditions is characterized by abnormally large pulp chambers ?
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A. Dentinal dysplasia type I

B. Amelogenesis imperfecta

C. Dentinogenesis imperfecta

D. Regional odontodysplasia
302. Geographical tongue, all are true except______________?
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A. May be related to emotional stress

B. Lesions may be Bilaterally symmetrical on tongue

C. No treatment is required

D. Is a precancerous condition
303. Bacteria responsible for initiation of caries is _________________?
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A. Actinomyces

B. Strep. viridans

C. Lactobacillus

D. Strep. mutans
304. Mutation in GNAS 1 gene is associated with________________?
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A. Focal cementoosseous dysplasia

B. Fibrous dysplasia

C. Periapical cementoosseous dysplasia

D. Ossifying fibroma

305. Tumour that doesnt show spontaneous regression______________?
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A. Neuroblastoma

B. Malignant melanoma

C. Octeosarcoma

D. Retinoblastoma

306. Fusion of teeth is more common in_______________?
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A. Permanent dentition

B. Mixed dentition

C. Primary dentition

D. None of the above

307. Downs syndrome is associated with all except__________________?
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A. Delayed eruption of deciduous teeth

B. Premature loss off deciduous teeth

C. Retrognathia

D. Periodontal disease

308. Pierre Robin syndrome is associated with______________?
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A. Tetrology of fallot

B. Syndactally

C. Micrognathia

D. Cleft of the lip and plate

309. Complication of Rheumatoid arthritis of condyle is______________?
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A. Subluxation

B. None of the above

C. Fibrous ankylosis

D. Dislocation

311. Taurodontism is characterized by_____________?
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A. Obliterated pulp chambers with secondary dentine deposition

B. Hypercementosis

C. Rootless teeth with thin shell of enamel

D. Elongated wide pulp canals and short roots
312. Which of the following diseases of the bone characteristically exhibits (in contrast to the other three conditions) a single lesion in a single bone ?
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A. Central giant cell granuloma

B. Polyostotic fibrous dysplasia

C. Pagets disease of the bone

D. Osteopetrosis

314. Turners hypoplasia most commonly affects________________?
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A. Permanent maxillary anteriors

B. Deciduous mandibular anteriors

C. Deciduous maxillary anteriors

D. Permanent manibular anteriors

315. Which of the following dentitions shows the highest frequency of ocurrence of supernumerary teeth ?
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A. Mandibular deciduous dentition

B. Mandibular permanent dentition

C. Maxillary deciduous dentition

D. Maxillary permanent dentition
316. The treatment for a child with cherubism is______________?
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A. Enbloc dissection

B. surgical excision

C. radiation

D. cosmetic surgery after puberty
317. In which one of the following perineural invasion in head and neck cancer is most commonly seen ?
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A. Adenocarcinoma

B. Adenoid cystic carcinoma

C. Squamous cell carcinoma

D. Basal cell adenoma

318. Presence of Epstein Barr virus in hairy leukoplakia can be demonstrated using following methods EXCEPT_____________?
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A. Polymerase chain reaction

B. Tzanck smear

C. In situ hybridization

D. Electron microscopy

319. All of the following malignancies metastasize except____________?
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A. Adenocarcinoma

B. Melanoma

C. Squamous cell carcinoma

D. Basal cell carcinoma
321. Organism involved in smooth surface caries is____________?
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A. ampylobacter

B. treptococcus mutans

C. ctinomyces viscosus

D. actobacillus

322. Immature bony trabeculae are found in_____________?
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A. Fibrous dysplasia

B. Rickets

C. Cleidocranial Dysplasia

D. Pagets disease

326. The most common congenital defect of the face and jaws is___________________?
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A. Macrostomia

B. Cleft lip and palate

C. Ectodermal dysplasia

D. Fetal alcohol syndrome

327. Taurodontism is usually seen in_________________?
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A. Mandibular first molar

B. Mesiodens

C. Maxillary premolars

D. Incisor with talon/cusp

328. Dentinogensis imperfecta differs from amelogenesis imperfecta in that, the former is_____________?
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A. A hereditary disturbance

B. The result of faulty enamel matrix formation

C. The result of excessive fluoride ingestion

D. Characterized by calcification of pulp chambers and the root canals of the teeth
329. Bohns nodules are______________?
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A. Warts on the tongue

B. Cystic swellings in neonates

C. Cysts associated with soft palate

D. Cysts of gingiva in growing children

330. Dense in dente is most commonly seen in______________?
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A. Maxillary canine

B. Paramolars

C. Paramolars

D. Lateral incisors
331. Sturge Weber syndrome is characterized by all EXCEPT_________________?
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A. Facial hematoma

B. Tramline calcification of dura on lateral cephalogram

C. Facial hemangioma

D. Exophytic oral Hemangioma

332. Neoplastic transformation in leucoplakia is seen most commonly in _____________?
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A. Palate

B. Floor of mouth

C. Lateral border of tongue

D. Buccal mucosa

333. Lateral skull view of palatal tori is used to know______________?
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A. Bone pattern

B. Extent

C. Pneumatization

D. Location

335. In a patient with reduced salivary flow the carious incidence is_______________?
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A. unaffected

B. less than the patient with normal salivary flow

C. More than the patient with normal salivary flow

D. None of the above

336. A 6 year old patient with extra cusp on maxillary central incisor is associated with all except______________?
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A. Proteus Syndrome

B. Mohrs syndrome

C. Sturge-Weber Syndrome

D. Rubinstein Taybi Syndrome

338. The 2nd common most supernumerary teeth is________________?
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A. Mesiodens

B. Distal to mandibular 3rd molar

C. Para molars

D. Distal to 3rd molar in maxilla
339. Gemination of teeth occur due to______________?
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A. Division of a single tooth bud before calcification

B. Fusion of two teeth after calcification

C. Division of a single tooth bud after calcification

D. Fusion of two teeth before calcification

340. Intitation of dental caries depends upon_______________?
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A. Localization of acid over tooth surface

B. Availability of carbohydrate food

C. Formation of large amount of acid

D. Viscosity of saliva

342. Hairy laukoplakia is associated with all of the following EXCEPT_____________?
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A. Bilateral appearance

B. Epstein Barr virus

C. Filiform to flat patch on lateral tongue

D. AIDS

343. A patient with fibrous dysplasia can be treated by________________?
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A. Removal of adjacent teeth

B. Conservative surgery

C. Surgical excision

D. Irradiation of the lesion

344. Talons cusp is characteristic of which syndrome_________________?
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A. Edwards syndrome

B. Downs syndrome

C. Rubinstein Taybi syndrome

D. Klinefelters syndrome

345. The most common cause of TMJ ankylosis is______________?
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A. Childhood illness

B. Osteoarthritis

C. Rheumatoid arthritis

D. Trauma
346. Median rhomboid glossits is associated is associated with_________________?
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A. fungal infection

B. Burning sensation of tongue

C. Oral cancer

D. Leukoplakia

348. Carcinoma of the cheek____________?
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A. Has a recognized association with chewing betel nut

B. CHaracteristically is columner-celled:

C. Has a recognized association with geographic tongue

D. Has a recognized association with chewing gum

349. Developmental enamel defects are most commonly seen in_______________?
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A. Permanent 1st molar

B. Primary 2nd molar

C. Primary incisors

D. Permanent incisors