oral pathology and medicine Mcqs
151. Facial paralysis is tested by_______________?
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A. Whistling

B. Swallowing

C. Protruding the tongue

D. chewing

152. Chronic hyperplastic pulpitis is:__________?
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A. Also called as phoenix abscess

B. Necrotizing

C. proliferation of a chronically inflamed pulp

D. Suppurative lesion

153. Subepithelial vesicles are characteristic all of the following EXCEPT:
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A. Bullous pemphigoid

B. Epidermolysis bullosa acquisita

C. Cicatricial pemphigoid

D. Pemphigus
154. Fothergills disease is one of the synonyms of_______________?
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A. Multiple sclerosis

B. Sarcoidosis

C. Trigeminal neuralgia

D. Lupus erythematosis

155. Which of the following parotid malignancy shows perineural spread_______________?
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A. Adenoid cystic carcinoma

B. Pleomorphic adenoma

C. Warthins tumor

D. Ductal papilloma

156. A patient shows inability to close the right corner of the mouth is most probably suffering form_______________?
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A. Myasthenia gravis

B. TMJ dysfunction syndrome

C. Bells palsy

D. Multiple sclerosis

157. Commonest site for ectopic salivary gland tumour is____________________?
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A. Tongue

B. Palate

C. Neck

D. Cheek

158. Intraepithelial vacuolation with formation of vesicle or bulla intraepithelially above the basal layer is characteristically seen in:___________?
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A. Pemphigus

B. Bullous pemphigoid

C. Candida albicans

D. Lichen planus

159. Which of the following is of salivary gland origin ?
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A. Acinic cell carcinoma

B. All of the above

C. Chondrosarcoma

D. Granular cell myoblastoma

160. Plaque microflora can-split carbohydrates. What does it means?
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A. Avirulant

B. Sacchrolytic

C. Virulant

D. Saprophytic

161. The latest drug of the choice in the management in trigeminal neuralgia is______________?
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A. None of the above

B. Diphen hydantoin

C. carbamazepine

D. valproic acid

162. Mixed tumour of the salivary glands are_______________?
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A. Most common in submandibular gland

B. Usually malignant

C. Associated with calculi

D. Most common in parotid gland
163. A non-neoplastic hereditary bone lesion, histologically similar to central giant cell granuloma affects children and shows, a bilateral involvement of the jaws with eye to heaven appearance clinically is_______________?
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A. Cherubism

B. Craniofacial dysostosis

C. Fibrous dysplasia

D. Chondro-ectodermal dysplasia

164. Which of the following statement is FALSE?
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A. The lesion termed a ranula is associated with the sublingual salivary gland

B. A pleomorphic adenoma is the most common salivary gland neoplasm

C. The sublingual salivary gland is the most common site of salivary gland neoplasia

D. A salivary duct obstruction can cause a unilateral swelling in the floor of the mouth that is largest before a meal and smallest after a meal

165. Which of the following drugs is not effective in case of Trigeminal Neuralgia ?
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A. acetaminophen

B. phenytoin sodium

C. Carbamazipine

D. Baclofen

166. L.E Cell phenomenon in peripheral blood is seen in:__________?
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A. Rheumatic heart disease

B. Ischemic heart disease

C. Infective endocarditis

D. Systemic Lupus Erythematosus
167. Pleomorphic adenoma is______________?
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A. myoepithelial or ductal reserve cell origin

B. a neuroendocrine cell tumour

C. a teratomatous tumour of the salivary gland

D. multiple ectopic tissue proliferating in the salivary gland

168. Orange peel and Ground glass radiographic appearance is observed in case of______________?
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A. Osteosarcoma

B. Weings sarcoma

C. Pagets disease

D. Fibrous dysplasia
169. Which of the following statement is false in relation to myofacial pain dysfunction syndrome ?
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A. is caused by muscle fatigue due to chronic oral habits are grinding and clenching

B. Treatment involves construction of occlusal guard and stress free emotional condition

C. The perioral musculature becomes hypotonic

D. Maily affects young females

170. Tzancks smear test is used in the diagnosis of___________?
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A. Apthous disease

B. Lichen planus

C. pemphigus

D. ANUG

171. The characteristic alarm clock headache is a feature of_______________?
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A. Sphenopalatine Neuralgia

B. Glossopharyngeal Neuralgia

C. Auriculotemporal Neuralgia

D. Trigeminal Neuralgia

172. Which is not true of Ludwigs angina?
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A. Usually arises from an infected molar

B. None of the above

C. involves submandibular space

D. May need emergency tracheostomy

173. Which of the following salivary gland tumors has highest rate of malignant transformation?
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A. Minor

B. Sublingual

C. Patrotid

D. Submanidbular

174. Saliva is increased by_____________?
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A. Andrenergic drugs

B. None of the above

C. Cholinergic drugs

D. Anticholinergic drugs

175. Pathologic calcification is seen in:__________?
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A. Scleroderma

B. Lichen planus

C. Lupus erythematosus

D. Dystrophic epidermolysis bullosa

176. The most common odontogenic tumour which occurs in relationto an unerupted tooth in the anterior maxilla:____________?
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A. Odontogenic adenomatoid tumour

B. Myxoma

C. Cementifying fibroma

D. Odontoma

177. Progression of dental caries caries on pit and fissure occurs from:
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A. Lateral surface of the pit and fissure

B. Wide and of the pit and fissure

C. Apex of the pit and fissure

D. Bottom of the pit and fissure

178. The gelatinous deposit adherent on the tooth surface is called as:__________?
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A. Calculus

B. Plaque

C. Materia alba

D. All of the above

179. A salivary gland tumour, which histologically shows a double layer of epithelial cells based on a reactive lymphoid stroma is_______________?
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A. Acinic cell tumour

B. Mucoepidermoid carcinoma

C. Warthin tumour

D. Pleomorphic adenoma

180. A 40 year old woman report with the complaint of burning sensation in the mouth. Clinical examination reveals lesions consisting of radiating white striations in a retiform arrangement affecting buccal mucosa, tongue, lips & gingiva bilaterally. An incisional biopsy is suggestive of lichen planus. The following are different clinical forms of lichen planus except:
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A. Atrophic lichen planus

B. Verrucous lichen planus

C. bullous lichen planus

D. Hypertrophic lichen planus

181. Salivary gland aplasia is seen in_________________?
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A. Mandibulo-facial dysostosis (Treacher Collins)

B. All of the above

C. Hemifacial microstomia

D. LADD syndrome

182. Hydropic degeneration of the basal cell of the straturn germinativum is a feature of___________?
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A. Syphilis

B. Lichen planus

C. Leukoplakia

D. Pemphigus

183. Which of the following is cariostatic?
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A. Selenium

B. Molybdenum

C. Cadmium

D. Magnesium

184. Dental cyst:_______________?
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A. Is frequently seen with a missing tooth on the X-ray

B. Replaces the tooth to which it it attached

C. Occurs from the reduced enamel epithelium

D. Cystic lining of stratified squamous epithelium
185. Which of the following differentiates between condensing osteitis and benign cementoblastoma?
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A. Condensing osteitis is associated with vital teeth where as cementoblastoma is associated with non-vital teeth

B. In condensing osteitis radiopacity is attached to tooth where as in cementoblastoma it is not

C. Cementoblastoma is associated with vital tooth where as condensing osteitis is associated with non-vital tooth

D. In cementoblastoma radiopacity is attached to tooth where as in condensing osteitis it is not
186. Class III malocclussion is seen in all of the following except___________________?
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A. Craniofacial dysostosis

B. Cleidocranial dysplasia

C. pierre robinson syndrome

D. Cleft palate

187. Spindle cell carinoma is a variant of_____________?
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A. Basal cell carcinoma

B. Pleomorphic Adenoma

C. Squamous cell carcinoma

D. Adenoid cystic carcinoma

188. Compound odontoma shows on a radiograph as:____________?
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A. Distinguishable tooth like structures

B. Supernumerary teeth

C. Radiolucent and radiopaque areas

D. Masses of calcified areas

189. Scleroderma involves:__________?
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A. Multiple palmar keratosis

B. Tightening of oral mucosa and periodontal involvement

C. All of the above

D. Raynauds phenomenon

190. A flat, cricumscribed discolouration of skin or mucosa that may vary in size and shape is referred to as:____________?
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A. Nodule

B. Macule

C. Epulits

D. papule

191. Psoralane Ultraviolet A (PUVA) therapy is advised in__________?
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A. ANUG

B. Carcinoma in situ

C. Apthous ulcers

D. Pemphigus vulgaris
192. Multiple pulp stones are seen in:_____________?
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A. Ehlers Danlos syndrome

B. Marfan syndrome

C. Downs syndrome

D. Aperts syndrome

193. Ehlers Danlos syndrome is__________?
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A. X-linked Dominant

B. Autosomal Dominant

C. Autosomal recessive

D. X-Linked recessive

194. Leafless fruit laden tree or cherry-blossom appearance on a sialogram indicates_____________?
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A. Sjogrens syndrome

B. Mucoepidermoid cell carcinoma

C. Acinar cell carcinoma

D. Pleomorphic adenoma

195. Which is a degeneration disorder characterized by atrophic changes of the deeper structures (e.g fat, muscle, cartilage & bone) involving one side of the face:
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A. Parry Romberg syndrome

B. Scleroderma

C. peutz-Jeghers syndrome

D. Mieschers syndrome

196. Which of the following is an oral manifestation of lichen planus?
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A. Fordyce spots

B. Dentinogenesis imperfecta

C. White, chalky enamel surface

D. White radiating lines on the buccal mucosa
197. Adenoid cystic carcinoma is also known as_______________?
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A. Warthins tumor

B. Cylindroma

C. Pleomorphic adenoma

D. Pindborg tumor

198. Which of the following is not a type of lichen planus?
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A. Erosive

B. Hypertrophic

C. Verrucous

D. Atrophic

199. Focal sclerosing osteomyelitis is:__________?
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A. An extremely painful condition

B. A common sequel following sequestrectomy

C. Due to low grade chronic infection

D. Due to excessive periosteal bone formation

200. The histopathology of osteopetrosis shows_______________?
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A. Endosteal bone formation and lack of normal bone resorption

B. Presence of numerous osteoclasts and a few osteoblasts

C. Persence of extra collagen fibres and less calcification resulting in resistance of bones to fracture

D. Periosteal bone formation and lack of normal bone resorption