1451. Which of the following antibiotics is effective in treating oral candidiasis ?
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A. Tetracycline

B. Bacitracin

C. Penicillin

D. Nystatin
1452. Disseminated candidiasis requires intensive therapy with_____________?
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A. Amphotericin

B. Thiobendazole

C. Nystatin

D. Interferons

1453. The drug for choice for treatment of infection involving non-penicillinase producing staphylococcus is___________?
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A. Erythromycin

B. Ampicillin

C. Penicilling G

D. Methicillin sodium

1454. AIDS is a disease if the immune system primarily affecting_____________?
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A. Opsonins

B. Granulocytes

C. Immunoglobulins

D. T lymphocytes
1455. Metronidazole______________?
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A. Is active against gram-positive aerobes

B. Is mainly concentrated in saliva

C. Has no side-effects

D. Is used in management of ANUG
1456. Ivermectin is indicated in_____________?
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A. All of the above

B. Scabies

C. Filariasis

D. Intestinal nematode infection

1457. Tetracycline chelates with______________?
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A. All of the above

B. Ca salts

C. All salts

D. Mg salts

1458. Which of the following drugs undergoes Hoffmann elimination ?
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A. d-tubecurarine

B. Acetycholine

C. Acetazolamide

D. Atracurium
1459. All except one are centrally acting muscle blocks___________?
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A. Diazepam

B. Meprobamate

C. Dantrolene sodium

D. Baclofen

1460. While performing a procedure, a resident doctor injures herself with a suture needle that has been used to stitch a patient with HIV infection for 11 years. He has been complaint with therapy for several years and has recently changed tablets because of alteration in his appearance. His last CD4 count was 360 cells/mm. The doctor is offered post exposure prophylaxis. Which regimen should she take ?
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A. Ziduvidine and Lamivudine and Indivair

B. Ziduvidine and Lamivudine and Stavudine

C. Ziduvidine and Lamivudine

D. Ziduvidine and Lamivudine and Abacavir

1461. All of the given drugs are positive inotropes EXCEPT_____________?
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A. Doxepin

B. Dopamine

C. dobutamine

D. Digoxin

1462. All are macrolide antibiotics EXCEPT______________?
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A. Calithromycin

B. Neomycin

C. Roxithromycin

D. Erythromycin

1463. Slufonamides mainly interferes with the bacterial______________?
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A. Ribosomal function

B. PABA

C. Translation

D. Transcription mechanisms

1464. Which of the following drug does not show renal toxicity_____________?
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A. Streptomycin

B. Methoxyprenaline

C. Isoflurane

D. Gentamycin

1465. One of the below mentioned penicillin is NOT given orally______________?
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A. Amoxicillin

B. Carbenicillin

C. Cloxacillin

D. Phenoxymethy penicillin

1466. INH induced neuropathy is treated with______________?
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A. Pyridoxine

B. Thiamine

C. Riboflavin

D. Niacin

1467. Which among the following anti-HIV drugs in an inhibitor of viral fusion ?
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A. Enfuvirtide

B. Nelfinavir

C. Efavirenz

D. Etanercept:

1468. Morphine is a_____________?
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A. Sedative

B. Alkaloid

C. Diuretic

D. Anti hypertensive

E. Both A & B
1469. Succinylcholine prevents bronchospasm by______________?
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A. Dual action

B. Direct muscle relaxation

C. Depolarising block

D. Centrally acting muscle relaxation

1470. Omeprazol is used in the treatment of____________?
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A. Amoebiasis

B. Peptic Ulcer

C. cholera

D. Malaria

1471. Chloramphenicol can cause_____________?
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A. Staining of teeth

B. Aplastic anaemia

C. B & C

D. Bone marrow suppression

1472. A patient taking beta-blocker preoperatively, at induction of anaesthesia with fentanyl. Which muscle relaxant should be avoided ?
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A. Pancuronium

B. Atracurium

C. Rocuronium

D. Vecuronium

1473. Which among the drugs given below, does Not act by protease inhibition ?
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A. Nelfinavir

B. Zanamivir

C. Ritonavir

D. Saquinavir

1474. Tetracycline when given to pregnant woman can cause_______________?
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A. Increased intracranial pressure in infant

B. Acute hepatic necrosis

C. All of the above

D. Discoloration/ staining of hard structures of foetus
1475. Beta2 adrenergic receptor stimulating drugs are used in_______________?
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A. cardiac asthma

B. Hypertension

C. Bronchial asthma

D. Angina pectrosis

1476. Drugs producing ototoxicity and Nephro toxicity are______________?
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A. Tetracyclines

B. Aminoglycosides

C. Quinalones

D. Macrolides

1477. All of the following glucocorticorticoids can be given by inhalation EXCEPT_______________?
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A. Beclomethasone

B. Budesonide

C. Dexamethasone

D. Fluticasone

1478. Which of the most effective for drug asymptomatic amoebic cysts ?
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A. Furazolidone

B. Metronidazole

C. Diloxanide furoate

D. Quinidochlor

1479. Heroin, an addict drug contains______________?
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A. Propoxyphene

B. ASA

C. Acetyl morphine

D. Pentazocine

1480. Mechanism of action of quinolones is______________?
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A. Inhibits intake of folic acid

B. Inhibits Bacterial protein synthesis

C. Inhibits DNA gyrase

D. Inhibits bacterial cell wall synthesis

1481. The aminoglycoside with least toxic effect is_____________?
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A. Ethambutol

B. Kanamycin

C. Streptomycin

D. Isoniazid

1482. Ketoconazole______________?
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A. Antiviral agent

B. Antibacterial

C. Chemotherapic agent

D. Antifungal agent
1483. A young lady talking rifampicin and OCP together become pregnant, most probable cause is____________?
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A. Obstruction of fallopian tubes

B. Decreased absorption of OCPs

C. Increase excretion of OCPs

D. Rifampicin causes hepatic enzyme induction and increase metabolism of OCPs
1484. First line of antitubercular drug is_____________?
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A. INH

B. Cephalosporins

C. Ethambutol

D. Streptomycin

1485. Mechanism of action of beta-lactam antibiotics would be______________?
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A. Inhibition of bacterial protein synthesis by binding to subunit of bacterial ribosomes

B. Inhibition of DNA synthesis by inhibiting DNA-Dependent RNA polymerase

C. Inhibition of cell wall peptidoglycan synthesis by competitive inhibition of transpetidases

D. Reduced drug causes strand breaks in DNA

1486. Povidine iodine is used for_____________?
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A. All of the above

B. Non-specific vaginitis

C. Burns

D. Tinea

1487. Which of the following is NOT an important/frequent/well-known manifestation of an adverse drug reaction ?
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A. Leukaemia

B. Aaemolysis

C. Agranulocytosis

D. Aplastic anaemia

1488. Which of the following can be given as a single dose antimalarial for P.vivax malaria______________?
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A. Atovaquone + Proguanil

B. Artemisinin

C. Pyrimethamine + Sulfadoxime

D. Quinine + Tetracycline

1489. Neuromuscular blocking agent with duration of onset of action less than 2 minutes is_________________?
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A. Gallamine

B. Pancuronium

C. D-tubocuraine

D. Succinyl choline
1490. Fluconazole is used for the treatment of______________?
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A. Herpes simplex

B. Candidiasis

C. Syphilis

D. Pemphigus

1491. Which of the following is not a broad spectrum antibiotic ?
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A. Tetracycline

B. Doxycyclin

C. Chloramphenicol

D. Cephalosporins
1492. Which of the following drug control lepramin reaction____________?
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A. Ethambutol

B. Dapsone

C. Clofazimine

D. Streptomycin

1493. Each of the following is correct for the treatment of Diarrhoea except_______________?
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A. Loperamide had high abuse potential

B. Diphenoxylate may cause respiratory depression on administration

C. Opioids delay the passage of gut contents by decreasing peristalsis and increasing intestinal segmentation

D. Kaolin has marginal therapeutic effect

1494. Prolonged administration of streptomycin may result in damage to the____________?
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A. Optic nerve

B. Facial nerve

C. Auditory nerve

D. Trigeminal nerve

1495. Bronchospasm can be precipitated by______________?
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A. Adrenaline

B. Atropine

C. propranolol

D. Salbutamol

1496. The drug for choice for treatment of infection involving non-penicillinase producing staphylococcus is______________?
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A. Methicillin sodium

B. Erythromycin

C. Penicilling G

D. Ampicillin

1497. The following adverse effect of penicillin is dose related___________?
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A. Skin rash

B. Drug fever

C. Intersititial Nephritis

D. Encephalopathy
1498. Bradycardia is most commonly treated with which of the following drugs_____________?
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A. Epinephrine

B. A potent vasadilatior

C. A diuretic

D. Atropine
1499. Carcinogens induce tumours, they are________________?
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A. Chemicals

B. Viruses

C. All of the above

D. Radiation

1500. The predisposing factor for squamous cell carcinoma __________________?
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A. Leukoplakia

B. Chronic ulcers

C. Solar keratosis

D. All of the above