pharmacology Mcqs
101. American society of anesthesiologists physical status classification system, P2 is a is a patient who______________?
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A. Is healthy

B. With mild systemic disease

C. None of the above

D. With severe systemic disease

102. Cardiac arrhythmias are most commonly seen during administration of____________?
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A. Nitrous oxide

B. Ethyl Ether

C. Thiopental

D. Halothane
103. Pregnant patient can be safely given______________?
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A. Barbiturates

B. Paracetamol

C. Metronidazole

D. Tetracycline

104. Plasma concentration of drug at time 0 is 96g/mL. if t1/2 is 2 hours concentration is plasma at 10 hours will be___________?
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A. 3

B. 24

C. 48

D. 12

105. Not true about penicillin G is______________?
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A. More concentrated in prostatic secretions and intraocular fluids

B. Very active against sensitive gram positive cocci

C. Destroyed by gastric acid

D. Used for treatment of meningococcal meningitis

106. NSAID which undergoes enterohepatic circulation______________?
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A. Phenylbutazone

B. Piroxicam

C. Ibuprofen

D. Aspirin

107. A patient is talking terfenadine for cold and comes for tooth extraction. What tablet you have given which makes him suffer from cardiac arrhythmia______________?
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A. Doxycycline

B. Erythromycin

C. Penicillin

D. Streptomycin

108. Bronchospasm can be precipitated by______________?
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A. Salbutamol

B. propranolol

C. Atropine

D. Adrenaline

109. General anaesthetic most likely to cause bronchodilation is_____________?
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A. Fentanyl

B. Ketamine

C. Thiopentone

D. Propofol

110. Which of the following is a leukotriene antagonist ?
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A. Misopristol

B. Nedocromil

C. Zileuton

D. Montelukast
111. A child is brought with drowsiness, decreased deep tendon reflexes and seizures. On examination the child has a blue line on gums. There is history of constipation. Which will be most appropriate drug that should be used in this child ?
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A. EDTA

B. Penicillamine

C. DMSA

D. BAL

112. Lidocaine produces its antiarrhythmic effects by_____________?
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A. Increasing A-V conduction

B. Increasing cardiac conduction velocity

C. Increasing spontaneous pacemaker activity

D. Decreasing cardiac excitability
113. Finasteride is a ?
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A. PDE inhibitor

B. Androgen receptor blocker

C. Alpha blocker

D. 5 alpha reductase inhibitor
114. Potassium permanganate is used for_______________?
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A. Cleaning surgical instruments

B. Dinisfect water in wells

C. Irrigating cavities

D. Gargling

115. Drugs used in cysticercosis_______________?
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A. Niclosamide

B. Pyrantel

C. Metronidazole

D. Prazequantal
116. Aspirin acts on which part of brain ?
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A. Substantia gelatinosa

B. Medulla

C. Cortex

D. Limbic system

117. The following statements are true about intravenous route of drug administration EXCEPT____________?
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A. Suspensions can be administered

B. Aseptic precautions are required

C. Bioavailability is 100%

D. It is useful in emergencies

118. Which among the following is Not used for surface anesthesia ?
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A. Procaine

B. Lignocaine

C. Benzocaine

D. Tetracaine

119. The phase I reactions of drug metabolism include The following except_____________?
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A. Hydolysis

B. Oxidation

C. Conjugation

D. Reduction

120. Naturally occurring local anaesthetic________________?
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A. Lignocaine

B. None of the above

C. Cocaine

D. Procaine

121. Action of Nitroglycerin is______________?
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A. Blocks arrhythmia

B. Increases perfusion to heart

C. Slows SA node conductivity

D. Direct action on smooth muscle
122. NSAIDs have adverse effect on________________?
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A. Bone

B. Stomach

C. Kidney

D. Liver

123. Which produces dissociative anaesthesia_____________?
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A. Propanidid

B. Fentany droperodol

C. Theiopentone sodium

D. Ketamine
124. INFLIXIMAB (systemic) is used in_____________?
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A. All of the above

B. Crohns disease (treatment)

C. To reduce the number of draining enterocutaneous fistula(s) in patients with fistulizing crohns disease

D. Rheumatoid arthritis (treatment)

125. Omeprazol is used in the treatment of____________?
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A. cholera

B. Peptic Ulcer

C. Amoebiasis

D. Malaria

126. Doalin pectrose is_____________?
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A. Counter irritant

B. Mummifying agent

C. Anticoagulant

D. Anti diarroheal
127. A young lady talking rifampicin and OCP together become pregnant, most probable cause is____________?
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A. Increase excretion of OCPs

B. Obstruction of fallopian tubes

C. Rifampicin causes hepatic enzyme induction and increase metabolism of OCPs

D. Decreased absorption of OCPs

128. A side effect of an antithyroid drug is______________?
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A. Tremors

B. Hypotension

C. Obesity

D. Hypothyroidism
129. Therapetic index indicates____________?
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A. Drug safety

B. Drug toxicty

C. Drugs Lethal effect

D. Drug potency

130. Which statement is true about carbamazepine ?
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A. It is the drug of choice for status epilepticus

B. Used in trigeminal neuralgia

C. Carbamazepine is an enzyme inhibitor

D. Can cause megaloblastic anemia

131. Which of the following exerts its major systemic pharmacological action when administered orally_____________?
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A. Streptomycin

B. Procaine

C. Insulin

D. Chloral hydrate
132. Which one of the following agents sensitises the myocardium to catechlomines____________?
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A. Proplofol

B. Ether

C. Halothane

D. Isoflurane

133. All the following drugs reduced the gastric acid secretion EXCEPT____________?
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A. Sucralfate

B. Misoprostal

C. Pantoprazole

D. Ranitidine

134. Majority of drugs are transported across the membrane by____________?
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A. Active transport

B. Filtration

C. Facilitated trasnsport

D. Passive diffusion
135. An attack of migraine can be easily terminated by___________?
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A. Morphine

B. Ibuprofen

C. Acetylcholine

D. Ergotamine
136. One of the following is not an antiemetic_____________?
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A. Chlorpromazine

B. Metaclopromide

C. Digitoxin

D. Scopolamine

137. Xerostomia is treated with_____________?
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A. Atropine

B. Scopalamine

C. Ephedrine

D. Neostigmine
138. Buprenorphine acts by following mechanism________________?
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A. Mu receptor partial agnoist

B. Kappa receptor partial agonist

C. Kappa receptor antagonist

D. Mu receptor antagonist

139. Problems associated with nitrous oxide anaesthesia is_____________?
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A. Tachycardia and or arrhythmias

B. Behavioral problem

C. Sensitizes the heart to adrenaline

D. Prolonged difficult induction

140. One of the benzodiazepines (BDZ) comparatively safe in pregnancy is (Category-B) ?
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A. None of the above

B. Alprozolam

C. Zolpidem

D. Lorazepam
141. Which of the following second generation anti-histaminics is used topically______________?
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A. Cetrizine

B. Terfenadine

C. Acrivastine

D. Lovocabastine

142. Which of the following drugs to not require a change in their dosage in patients with renal failure_______________?
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A. Cefotaxime

B. Isoniazid

C. Aminoglycoside

D. Rifampicin

143. Drug not requiring dose adjustment in renal disease is___________?
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A. Aminoglycoside

B. Calcium channel blocker

C. Vancomycin

D. Metronidazole

144. Salicylate overdose in children causes_______________?
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A. Crystalluria

B. None of the above

C. Kernicterus

D. Ryes syndrome
145. A drug A & B compared, all are true except____________?
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A. 1 mg of A cause effect not even caused by maximum tolerated dose of B, so drug A is more efficacious

B. Efficacy is not dose dependent

C. 1 mg of A cause effect not caused by 1 mg of B so A is more efficacious

D. 1 mg of A causes same effect of 3 mg of B, so A is more potent

146. Patients tend to exhibit a greater than normal response drugs in each of the following conditions except_______________?
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A. Congestive cardiac failure

B. Hypolbuminaemia

C. Hepartic cirrhossis

D. Hyperthyroidism

147. Which of the following is not caused by Frusemide____________?
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A. Hypercalcemia

B. Hyperuricemia

C. Hypokalemia

D. Hyponatremia

148. Intramuscular route is precluded during the medication of________________?
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A. Anticoagulants

B. Anti-hypertensives

C. Anti-diabetics

D. Anti-fibrinolytics

149. The vulnerable period of pregnancy for the causation of foetal malformation is_____________?
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A. 1 18 days

B. 19 55 days

C. 56 85 days

D. II trimester

150. Mention the drug causing gynecomastia hirsuitism, menstrual disturbance on long-term use______________?
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A. Acetazolamide

B. Hydrochlorthiazide

C. Amiloride

D. Spironolactone