pharmacology MCQs – Page 8

Practise focused pharmacology questions with marked answers for exam preparation and subject revision.

pharmacology Mcqs
351. A person with glaucoma should not receive________________?
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A. Antisialogogues

B. Vasoconstrictors

C. Sedatives

D. Local anaesthetic

352. Neuromuscular blocking agent with duration of onset of action less than 2 minutes is_________________?
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A. Gallamine

B. Succinyl choline

C. Pancuronium

D. D-tubocuraine

353. Tetracycline is more preferred in periodontics because______________?
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A. All of the above

B. It has anticollagenolytic effect

C. None of the above

D. It is broad spectrum antibiotic

354. The antidote for heparin is______________?
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A. Pryosulphate

B. Penicillinase

C. Potassium sulphate

D. Protamine sulphate
355. Rebound phenomenon is most commonly seen with use of_________________?
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A. Phenyleprine

B. Epinephrine

C. Norepinephrine

D. Leuonordefrin

356. Which of the following is associated with neutropenia ?
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A. Vinblastin

B. Cisplastin

C. Methotrexate

D. Doxorubicin

357. Cloidogrel is an______________?
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A. Antipalatelet

B. Antidiabetic

C. Anti hypertensive

D. Anticoagulant

358. INH induced neuropathy is treated with______________?
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A. Pyridoxine

B. Riboflavin

C. Thiamine

D. Niacin

359. Stepwise mutation for drug resistance is seen with_____________?
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A. Kanamycin

B. Streptomycin

C. Garamycin

D. Penicillin
360. Which of the following general anesthetics is given by intravenous route ?
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A. Sevofluorane

B. Naloxane

C. Propofol

D. Flumizenil

361. Alpha blocker used as anti hypertensive agent_____________?
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A. Propranolol

B. Alpha methyl DOPA

C. Clonidine

D. Prazosin
362. Colour of teeth stained by tetracycline appear _________ under UV light?
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A. Red

B. Green

C. Brown

D. Yellow
363. Which one of the following can be blocked by atropine ?
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A. Tachycardia caused by exercise

B. Decreased blood pleasure caused by hexamethonium

C. Increased blood pressure caused by nicotine

D. Tachycardia caused by infusion of acetylcholine

364. A patient has seasonal allergic rhinitis and is on terfenadine, He develps cardiac arrhythmias after a course of antibiotics. Which of the following antibiotic could have been given_____________?
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A. Tetracyclin

B. Erythromycin

C. Co-trimoxazole

D. Ampicillin

365. Which of the following is a 4th generation cephalosporin______________?
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A. Ceftrioxone

B. Cefuroxime

C. Cefaclor

D. Cefepime
366. Which of the most effective for drug asymptomatic amoebic cysts ?
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A. Furazolidone

B. Diloxanide furoate

C. Quinidochlor

D. Metronidazole

367. Optic neuritis is a side effect of______________?
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A. Pyrazinamide

B. Rifampicin

C. INH

D. Ethambutol
368. Disseminated candidiasis requires intensive therapy with_____________?
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A. Thiobendazole

B. Nystatin

C. Amphotericin

D. Interferons

369. Adrenaline is used in following EXCEPT______________?
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A. With xylocaine

B. Post extraction socket

C. Anaphylactin shock

D. Angina in dental chair

E. Both B & D
370. All of the following drugs are primarily bacteriostatic except______________?
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A. Rifampin

B. Ethambutol

C. Chloramphenicol

D. Sulphonamide

371. The following drugs are avoided with warfarin ______________?
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A. Codeine, dihydrocodeine, paracetmol

B. Antacids

C. Benzodiazepine

D. Nsaids like Ibuprofen
372. Curare poisoning is characterised by________________?
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A. Doesnt release histamine

B. Hypertension

C. Hypotension

D. Oral route of administration is the best route

373. All of the following are endogenous corticosteriods released by all adrenal cortex EXCEPT______________?
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A. Cortisol

B. Dexamethsone

C. Aldosterone

D. Cortisone

374. Which one of the following drugs is not a non depolarizing competitive neuromuscular blocker ?
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A. Doxacurim

B. Rocuronium

C. Mivacurium

D. Decamethonium
375. Mechanism of action of beta-lactam antibiotics would be______________?
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A. Inhibition of cell wall peptidoglycan synthesis by competitive inhibition of transpetidases

B. Inhibition of bacterial protein synthesis by binding to subunit of bacterial ribosomes

C. Inhibition of DNA synthesis by inhibiting DNA-Dependent RNA polymerase

D. Reduced drug causes strand breaks in DNA

376. Which of the following penicillins has the best gram negative spectrum ?
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A. Ampicillin

B. Methicillin

C. Cefixime

D. Penicillin V

377. Tetracycline acts on______________?
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A. Cell membrane

B. Inhibiting DNA gyrase

C. 50S ribosomes

D. 30S ribosomes
378. Which of the following can be given as a single dose antimalarial for P.vivax malaria______________?
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A. Atovaquone + Proguanil

B. Pyrimethamine + Sulfadoxime

C. Quinine + Tetracycline

D. Artemisinin

379. Which among the following is the drug of choice for clostridium difficile induced colitis ?
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A. Metronidazole

B. Linezolid

C. Gentamicin

D. Ciprofloxacin

380. Penicillin is effective against_____________?
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A. Neisseria gonorrhoeae

B. Neisseria meningitis

C. Treponema Pallidum

D. All of the above
381. Topical Antifungal agent in candidiasis is______________?
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A. Ornidazole

B. Propronolol

C. Clotrimoxazole

D. Clotrimazole
382. All are true about metformin except_____________?
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A. Reduce hepatic glucose production

B. Inhibits cellular respiration in mitochondria

C. Used in decompensated heart failure

D. Excreted unchanged in urine

383. A patient taking beta-blocker preoperatively, at induction of anaesthesia with fentanyl. Which muscle relaxant should be avoided ?
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A. Pancuronium

B. Vecuronium

C. Atracurium

D. Rocuronium

384. In which of the following categories are ephedrine, tyramine and emphetamine classified________________?
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A. Direct acting sympathomimetics

B. Indirect acting sympathomimetics

C. Anticholinesterases

D. Alpha-adrenergic blocking agents

385. All of the following cephalosporines are active against Pseudomonas Except_____________?
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A. Cefaclor

B. Ceftazidine

C. Cefotaxime

D. Cefoperazone

386. Bacitracin is a_______________?
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A. Oral antibiotic

B. Topical antibiotic

C. All of the above

D. Parenteral antibiotic

387. Drug chemically related to penicillins is_____________?
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A. Cephalosporin

B. Tetracycline

C. Lincemycin

D. Sulphonamide

388. Which of the following statements is not correct regarding warfarin_____________?
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A. In a racemic mixture the R form is four times more active than the S form

B. Better avoided during pregnancy as it may causes skeletal deformity of the foetus

C. Transient hypercoagulability is seen

D. The anticoagulant effect is seen only after 72 hours of administration

389. Which of the following drugs is used therapeutically during allergic conditions ?
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A. Succinylcholine

B. Epinephrine

C. Sulfonamides

D. Tetracycline

390. Antibiotic that achieves high concentration in Hard tissue, because of its molecular size is______________?
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A. Clindamycin

B. Ciprofloxacin

C. Erythromycin

D. Ceftum

391. Drug which is most unsafe during pregnancy is____________?
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A. Ethambutol

B. B & C

C. Streptomycin

D. Kanamycin

392. Roxithromycin is______________?
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A. Long acting polypeptide

B. Short action quinolone

C. A long acting macrolide

D. Short acting macrolide

393. Which of the following antibiotics is found at much higher concentrations in cervicular fluid than in serum ?
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A. Metronidazole

B. Tetracyline

C. Penicillin

D. Clindamycin

394. Povidine iodine is used for_____________?
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A. Burns

B. All of the above

C. Tinea

D. Non-specific vaginitis

395. Amphotericin B is given for what etiology_______________?
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A. Viral

B. Rickettesial

C. Bacterial

D. Fungal
396. Concurrent administration of tetracyclines is most likely to impair the action of_____________?
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A. Penicillin

B. Erythromycin

C. Chloramphenicol

D. Lincomycin

397. B-lactam antibiotics are_____________?
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A. Imipenem

B. All of the above

C. Penicillin

D. Cephalosporins

398. While performing a procedure, a resident doctor injures herself with a suture needle that has been used to stitch a patient with HIV infection for 11 years. He has been complaint with therapy for several years and has recently changed tablets because of alteration in his appearance. His last CD4 count was 360 cells/mm. The doctor is offered post exposure prophylaxis. Which regimen should she take ?
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A. Ziduvidine and Lamivudine and Stavudine

B. Ziduvidine and Lamivudine and Indivair

C. Ziduvidine and Lamivudine and Abacavir

D. Ziduvidine and Lamivudine

399. The following adverse effect of penicillin is dose related___________?
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A. Intersititial Nephritis

B. Drug fever

C. Skin rash

D. Encephalopathy
400. The anticogulant of choice during pregnancy is______________?
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A. Sodium oxalate

B. Heparin

C. Phenindone

D. Warfarin sodium