pharmacology Mcqs
201. Immune mediated qualitative drug intolerance is called______________?
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A. Super sensitivity

B. Idiosyncrasy

C. Hyper acidity

D. Hyper sensitivity
202. All the following about antiemetic drugs are correct except_______________?
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A. Domperidone blocks the D2 receptors in CTZ and upper gut

B. Ondastran may cause vomiting by effecting the cytotoxic antige receptors

C. Ondastran acts on selective 5 -HT3 receptors

D. Domperidone causes Dystonia

203. The choice of treatment in anaphylactic shock is_______________?
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A. Saline 1.V

B. Adrenaline

C. Glucose 1.V

D. Corticosteroids

204. Which of the following is an irreversible side enact resulting from long term administration of phenothiazline antipsychotics__________________?
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A. Infertility

B. Parkinsonism

C. Tardive dyskinesia

D. B & C
205. Beta2 adrenergic receptor stimulating drugs are used in_______________?
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A. Hypertension

B. Bronchial asthma

C. Angina pectrosis

D. cardiac asthma

206. An untoward effect of that is common to all phenothiazines is______________?
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A. A marked increase in blood pressure

B. Rigidity and tremor at rest, particularly with prolonged use

C. Suppression of prolacin

D. Nausea

207. A patient with grandmal epilepsy would likely be under treatment with_______________?
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A. Trimethadione

B. Phenytoin

C. Meprobamate

D. Pentobarbital

208. Which of the following is not a Glycoside ?
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A. Digitoxin

B. Digoxin

C. Gitoxin

D. Ergotoxine
209. Morphine a powerful opioid analgesic drug should be avoided in all the following conditions except____________?
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A. Left ventricular failure

B. A & C

C. Bronchial asthma

D. Constipation

210. Which drug is present in ledermix paste ?
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A. Tetracycline

B. Minocycline

C. Demeclocyline

D. Doxycycline

211. Which among the following is a cell cycle specific anti-neoplastic drug ?
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A. Cyclophosphamide

B. Methotrexate

C. Doxorubicin

D. Cisplatin

212. The drug Amifostine is used in subjects undergoing radiotherapy for cancer as it________________?
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A. Prevents repair of damaged DNA

B. Promotes damage of DNA

C. Scavanges free radicals

D. Enhances the production of free radicals

213. All are symptoms of opiate withdrawls except______________?
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A. Excessive speech

B. Lacrimation

C. Mydriasis

D. Diarrhea

214. Which is a prodrug ?
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A. Enalapril

B. Salmeterol

C. Acetazolamide

D. clonidine

215. Which drug is not acetylated ?
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A. Hydralazine

B. Dapsone

C. Metaclopramide

D. INH

216. Filgrastin is used for treatment of_____________?
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A. Anemia

B. Neutropenia

C. Filariasis

D. Malaria

217. The drug combination which produces Neuroleptanalgesia is______________?
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A. Droperiodl + Thiopental sodium + Nitrous oxide

B. Deroperidol + Ketamine

C. Daroperidol + Fentanyl

D. Droperiodl + Ether

218. Complete drug elimination occurs after how many hours, if t is 4 hrs______________?
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A. 12 hrs

B. 25 hrs

C. 20 hrs

D. 30 hrs

219. Diuretics cause loss of_______________?
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A. Iron

B. Potassium

C. Sodium

D. Calcium

220. Amyl nitrate is most commonly administered _________________?
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A. By inhatation

B. Sub lingually

C. Intravenously

D. Orally

221. Which is not antiemetic ?
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A. Ondanestron

B. Cyclizine

C. Phenazocine

D. Domperidone

222. H antagonists are effective in the therapy of all the following except______________?
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A. Common cold

B. Parkinsonism

C. Motion sickness

D. Systemic anaphylaxis

223. 1st past metabolism effect can be observed with which route______________?
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A. Parental

B. Inhalation

C. Oral

D. Rectal

224. Drugs exhibiting first pass metabolism are all EXCEPT one______________?
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A. Salicylates

B. Propranolol

C. Morphine

D. Nitroglycerine

225. All of the given drugs are positive inotropes EXCEPT_____________?
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A. Digoxin

B. Doxepin

C. dobutamine

D. Dopamine

226. All of the following causes increase in heart rate except________________?
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A. Sevoflurane

B. Halothane

C. Desflurane

D. Isoflurane

227. Which of the following inhalational agents is the induction agent of choice in children______________?
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A. Isoflurane

B. Methoxyflurane

C. Desflurane

D. Sevoflurane
228. Morphine is contraindicated in all of the following except_______________?
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A. Head injury

B. Pulmonary oedema

C. Bronchial asthma

D. Emphysema

229. When given together, the ability of two drugs to produce a response greater than either administered alone is termed as_____________?
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A. Antagonism

B. Induction

C. Synergism

D. Cumulation

230. Centrineuraxial (spinaland epidural) anaesthesia is not contraindicated in____________?
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A. Patient on oral anticoagulants

B. Platalets <80,000

C. Patient on aspirin

D. Raised intracranial pressure

231. Beta blockers are contraindicated in___________?
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A. Cardiac failure

B. Cardiac arrhythmia

C. Angina pectoris

D. Myocardial infarction

232. Carbamazepine is a type of___________?
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A. Antidepressant

B. Antinflammatory

C. Antibiotic

D. Antiemetic

233. Which of the following is a mismatch ?
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A. Herbicide and earth materials allergies

B. Naloxone-Tricyclic antidepressant

C. Warfarin- Oral anticoagulant

D. Acetaminophen anti inflammatory

234. Which of the following can cause seizure ?
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A. Tacrolimus

B. Tramadol

C. Levocetrizine

D. Isoniazid
235. Which of the following is a nonsteroldad anti inflammatory agent with a tendency to produce blood dyscriasis ?
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A. Ibuprofen (Motrin)

B. Indomathecin (indocin)

C. Aceteminophen

D. Ketoroloc

236. Which one of the following drugs is not contraindicated in bronchial asthma ?
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A. Stropine

B. Morphine

C. Propanolol

D. Nitroglycerine
237. In which of the following condition thalidomide may be used_______________?
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A. Erythema nodosum leprosum

B. Myocardial infarction

C. Epilepsy

D. Wernickes ecephalo pathy

238. Which one of the following muscle relaxant has the maximum duration of action ?
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A. Vecuronium

B. Atracurium

C. Rocuronium

D. Doxacurium
239. A biological experiment in which one compares the effects of two preparations by means of common biological response is known a_____________?
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A. Bio-experiment

B. Biodegradable

C. Bio-assay

D. Bio-statement

240. Agents used by local application to control bleeding include all of the following except____________?
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A. Gelatin foam

B. Vitamin-K

C. Trannic acid

D. Adrenaline

241. Which of the following can be given safely to a patient of congestive heart failure________________?
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A. Diclofenac sodium

B. Paracetamol

C. Ibuprofen

D. Aspirin

242. Which one is not converted to an active metabolite ?
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A. Fosinopril

B. Lisinopril

C. Quinapril

D. Benzopril

243. Which of the following is used in the prophylaxis of migraine ?
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A. Carbamazepine

B. Phenobarbitone

C. Ethosuxamide

D. Topiramate
244. Which antisialagogue is contraindicated in glaucoma_____________?
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A. Ephederine

B. Propranolone

C. Atropine

D. Morphine

245. IV ultrashort acting barbiturate_____________?
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A. Phenobarbitone

B. Thiopentone

C. Meprobamate

D. Pentobarbitone

246. Chloroxylenol has_______________?
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A. Local anesthetic property

B. Antibiotic action

C. Local anesthetic and antiseptic action

D. Antiseptic action
247. Allergic reactions depends on all except____________?
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A. Pharmacological action of the drug

B. Antigen antibody reaction

C. previous exposure to the drug

D. Dosage of the drug received
248. The dentist who first used Nitrous oxide for the abolition of pain due to dental extraction was_____________?
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A. Horace wells

B. Hunter John

C. Harpes David

D. Harvey william

249. All of the following statements regarding biovailability of a drug are true except______________?
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A. Low oral biovailability always and necessarily mean poor absorption

B. It is the proportion (fraction) of unchanged drug that reaches the systemic circulation

C. Biovailability of an orally administered drug can be calculated by comparing the area under cure (o-a) after oral and intravenous (IV) administration

D. Biovailability can be determined from plasma concentration or urinary excretion data

250. Which one of the following drugs is most commonly employed in an attack of angina pectoris ?
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A. Epinephrine

B. Sodium nitrate

C. Isosorbide dinitrate

D. Nitroglycerina