microbiology Mcqs
101. EBV is responsible for all except______________?
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A. Burkitts lymphoma

B. Nasopharyngeal carcinoma

C. Hepatoma

D. Infectious mononucleosis

102. Fungal infection of human beings is called as_____________?
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A. Mucorsis

B. Fungosis

C. Micromia

D. Mycosis
103. The protective effects breast milk are known to be associated with______________?
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A. Mast cells

B. IgM antibodies

C. Lysozyme

D. IgA antibodies
104. Anti HBsAB indicates______________?
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A. Resistance to hepatitis B

B. Hepatocellular carcinoma

C. Acute infection

D. Good prognosis
105. In transmission of malaria, mosquito bite transfers_______________?
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A. Merozoite

B. Hypnozoite

C. Sporozoite

D. Gametocyte

106. Stain used to make the wetted area of filter paper strip more visible is_____________?
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A. Eosin stain

B. Blue stain

C. Ninhydrin stain

D. Haemotoxin stain

107. Following reaction are produced by heterophil antigens except_____________?
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A. Paul bunnel reaction

B. Weil-Felix reaction

C. Forssman antigen antibody reaction

D. Widal reaction
108. When horse serum is injected intravenoulsy in to a rabbit and again in to the skin two or three weeks later, what is the necrotizing reaction that occurs as the site of the second injection________________?
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A. Serum sickness

B. Atopy

C. Arthus phenomenon

D. Anaphylaxis

109. Complement factor through which common pathway begins___________________?
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A. C3

B. C2

C. C5

D. Protein B

110. Spores are disinfected by_______________?
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A. Glutaraldehyde

B. Betapropiolactone

C. Formaldehyde

D. Hexachlorophen

E. Both A & C
111. CD4 count in normal healthy adult is_______________?
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A. 1000

B. 500

C. 300

D. 200

112. Bacterial cell does not possess___________________?
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A. Mitochondria

B. Ribosome

C. dna

D. Cell wall

113. IL-1 and TNF a during inflammation are secreted by______________?
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A. Lymphocytes

B. Platelet

C. Activated macrophages

D. Plasma cells

114. Fungus capable to forming fungal ball is ________________?
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A. Rhizopus

B. Aspergillus

C. Penicillium

D. Mucor

115. Salivary protein, which prevents transmission of human immunodeficiency virus via saliva, is____________?
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A. Secretory IgA

B. Histidine rich proteins

C. Salivary leukocyte proteinase inhibitor

D. Sialoperoxidase

116. Virus infected cell is killed by________________?
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A. Interferons

B. Autolysis

C. Macrophages

D. Neutrophils

117. Which of the following is not a kochs postulate ?
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A. Pure cultures can be obtained

B. The bacteria should be able to be isolated from a diseased tissue

C. When inoculated in experimental animals bacteria may or may not cause disease

D. Bacteria should be able to be isolated from the diseased tissue in the experimental animals

118. Antigen combining site of the antibody is____________________?
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A. Hapten

B. Epitope

C. Idiotope

D. Paratope
119. True about immune response of hepatitis B is__________________?
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A. CMI disappears soon after recover

B. Antibody to HBC is not protective

C. Highest titres of anti HBC are found in persistent carriers of HBs Ag

D. Antibody of HBs Ag is associated with resistance to infection
120. Serological study for prevalence of Hepatitis B is best done by______________?
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A. Core antigen

B. Surface antigen

C. Core antibody

D. Surface antibody

121. The best skin disinfectant is________________?
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A. Chlorhexdine

B. Alcohol

C. Savlon

D. None of the above

122. Transmission of all of the following intestinal parasites takes place by the feco-oral route except______________?
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A. Strongyloides

B. Giardia lambia

C. Ascaris lumbriocoides

D. Entamoeba

123. Babu, a 28 year old male comes with compaint of exposure 3 wks back, having cervical Lymphadenopathy, Hepatosplenomegaly. Diagnosis of HIV is done by____________?
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A. P24 antigen

B. Lymph node biopsy

C. ELISA

D. Western blot

124. The distinguishing characteristic of a positive delayed type hypersensitivity skin test is______________?
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A. Erythema

B. Vasculitis

C. Induration

D. Necrosis

125. The best way of detecting the presence of viruses in the infected cell culture is____________?
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A. Haemagglutination inhibition test

B. Cytopathic changes in culture cells

C. Presence of viral protein in the infected monolayer

D. Haemagglutination test

126. A young pregnant woman presents with fulminant hepatic failure. The most likely aetiological agent is_____________?
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A. Hepatitis C virus

B. Hepatitis A virus

C. Hepatitis E virus

D. Hepatitis B virus

127. Cold sterilization refers to the process of sterilization by use of______________?
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A. Gamma rays

B. Ultrasonic vibrations

C. Infrared rays

D. Ultra violet rays

128. Which does not have a viral etiology______________?
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A. Carcinoma Cervix

B. Nasopharyngeal carcinoma

C. Hepatoma

D. Lymphoma

129. The inflammatory type of tinea capitis with superadded secondary bacterial infection leading to a painful, circumscribed, boggy, and indurated lesion, is called_____________?
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A. Tenia incognito

B. Kerison

C. Alopecia areata

D. Pilomatrixoma

130. Robertsons cooked meat medium is best suited for cultivation of_______________?
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A. Clostridia

B. Choleria

C. Mycobacterium

D. S. epidermidis

131. Sleeping sickness is caused by_______________?
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A. Tick

B. Sand fly

C. House fly

D. Reduvid bug
132. The key cell types involved in the acquired immunity include all EXCEPT________________?
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A. Antigen presenting cells (APC

B. Erythrocytes

C. B lymphocytes

D. T lymphocytes

133. Germ tubes are formed mainly by_______________?
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A. Candida pseudotropicalls

B. Candida tropicalis

C. Candida albicans

D. Candida stellatoidea

134. Characters of exotoxin include all, except_______________?
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A. Protein polysaccharide complex

B. Has specific tissue affinity

C. Highly potent

D. Heat labile

135. For the treatment of case of class III dog bite, all of the following are correct except_____________?
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A. Give inmunoglobulins for passive immunity

B. Immediately wash wound with soap and water

C. Immediately stitch wound under antibiotic coverage

D. Give ARV

136. A mother donated a kidney to her daughter having chronic renal failure, which kind of graft it represents________________?
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A. Xeno

B. Allo

C. Auto

D. ISO

137. Portion of immunoglobulin molecule with molecular weight to 50000_________________?
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A. Secretory piece

B. H chain

C. L chain

D. J piece

138. The following immunoglobulin is not known to fix complement_________________?
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A. IgM

B. IgG

C. IgE

D. IgA

139. Confirmatory test for HIV infection is a_______________?
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A. RIPA

B. ELISA

C. Immunodot

D. Western Blot
140. The only virus, which has double stranded RNA, is______________?
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A. Reo virus

B. Calci virus

C. Rhabdo virus

D. Bunya virus

141. Malaria pigment is________________?
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A. Haematin-globin pigment

B. Bilurubin

C. Iron

D. Haemoglobin

142. Which of the following is not true of boiling water_____________?
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A. Can kill vegetative bacterial cells

B. It can kill hepatitis B virus

C. Can kill mycobacterium tuberculosis

D. Used for sterilizing surgical instruments
143. Commonest site of extra intestinal amoebiasis is___________________?
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A. Brain

B. Liver

C. Lungs

D. Spleen

144. Which of the following is most potent antigen for stimulating both humoral and cell mediated immunity ?
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A. Polysaccharides

B. Proteins

C. Adjuvant

D. Lipids

145. Antibody to HSV will begin to appear_____________________?
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A. antibodies are present in recurrent and chronic apthous stomatitis

B. no antibodies are present in primary HSV

C. in a week and reach a peak in 3 weeks

D. only after one year

146. Adjuvant given along with antigens are going to________________?
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A. reduce the toxigenicity

B. Increase toxigenicity

C. Increase antigenicity

D. Reduce the antigenicity

147. L.D bodies are seen in_______________?
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A. Sleeping sickness

B. Kalahazar

C. Toxoplasmosis

D. Malaria

148. Leishmania is cultured in ________________ media?
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A. Tellurite

B. Sabourauds

C. Chocolate agar

D. NNN
149. Candidal hyphae can be stained using_______________?
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A. Van Giesons stain

B. Periodic acid schiff stain

C. Toluidine blue stain

D. Masson Trichrome stain

150. Madura mycosis produces______________?
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A. Brown to black granules

B. White to yellow granules

C. No granules

D. Red granules